NEET MCQs Reproductive Health [Free PDF Download]

NEET MCQs Reproductive Health – MCQs

  1. What are the various ways through which the reproductive health can be improved?
    I. Education
    II. Awareness
    III. Encouraging myths
    IV. Ban on amniocentesis
    a) I and II b) II and III c) III and IV d) I, II and IV
  2. Which IUD increases the phagocytosis of the sperms within the uterus?
    a) Non-medicated IUD b) Copper releasing IUD
    c) Both (a) and (b) d) Hormone releasing IUD
  3. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for
    a) Detecting any genetic abnormality
    b) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus
    c) Artificial insemination
    d) Transfer for embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
  4. Find out the natural contraception methods
    I. Implantation
    II. Lactational (amenorrhoea)
    III. Condoms
    IV. Vasectomy
    V. Tubectomy
    VI. Sterilisation
    a) I and II b) III and IV c) V and VI d) Only II
  5. “Theory of four humors” was proposed by:
    a) Theophrastus b) Aristotle c) Alexander d) Pluto
  6. Female condoms are called
    a) Femidom b) Female condom
    c) Contraceptive condom d) None of these
  7. NSEP stands for
    a) National Smallpox Eradication Programme b) National Sickness Eradication Programme
    c) National Syphilis Eradication Programme d) None of the above
  8. Study of population trends is:
    a) Kalography b) Psychobiology c) Biography d) Demograghy
  9. Find out sexually transmitted diseases among the given below
    I. AIDS II. Syphilis
    III. Gonorrhea IV. Malaria
    V. Hepatitis-B VI. TB
    a) I, II, V and VI b) VI, I, II and III c) I, II, III and V d) I, II, III, IV, V and VI
  10. What is the difference in oral contraceptives and hormonal implants?
    a) They differ in their sites of implantation b) They differ in their duration of action
    c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
  11. ICSI stands for
    a) Inter Cytoplasmic Semen Injection b) Intra Cytoplasmic Semen Injection
    c) Inter Cytoplasmic Semen Injection d) In Cytoplasmic Semen Injection
  12. CDRI is situated in

Page| 2

a) Delhi b) Kanpur c) Lucknow d) Tamil Nadu

  1. Find out the right aspects of lactational amenorrhoea
    I. Ovulation do not occur during the lactational period
    II. Chances of the failure of contraception are almost nil upto six months following parturition
    III. Side effects are almost nil
    IV. It is a natural method of contraception
    V. It increases phagocytosis of sperms
    a) II, III, IV and V b) All except V c) II, III, IV and V d) All of these
  2. ‘Population explosion’ being witnessed is mainly due to:
    a) Better job facilities b) Increase in agricultural production
    c) Better health care d) None of these
  3. Maximum growth rate occurs in:
    a) Lag phase b) Exponential phase c) Stationary phase d) Senescent phase
  4. What is the purpose of surgical method of contraception?
    a) Prevent gamete motility b) Prevent gamete formation
    c) Gametogenesis promotion d) Facilitate implantation
  5. Choose the WHO’s statement about reproductive health.
    I. Healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
    II. Total well being of physical, emotional, behavioural and social aspects.
    III. Free of all STD (Sexually Transmitted Disease)
    a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) Only II
  6. Lactational amenorrhora is
    a) Absence of menses in adult age
    b) Absence of menses in elderly age
    c) Absence of menses during lactation
    d) No menses during pregnancy
  7. Most thickly populated country is:
    a) Bangladesh b) Australia c) U.S.A d) India
  8. What is the use of condoms?
    a) Decreases sperm motility b) Increases sperm motility
    c) Barrier to prevent fusion of sperm and ova d) Increases phagocytosis
  9. Amniocentesis is a technique to:
    a) Estimate essential amino acids in the body b) Detect chromosomal anomalies in the foetus
    c) Reverse sex of the foetus d) Correct genetic disorders of the foetus
  10. Test tube baby is a technique where:
    a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted
    b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted
    c) Sperm and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube
    d) None of the above
  11. In a population, the condition at which the rate of addition of new members is more than the rate of
    individuals lost indicates:
    a) Zero population growth b) Exponential growth
    c) Declining growth d) None of these
  12. Which oral contraceptive is developed by CDRI?
    a) Saheli b) Mala-D c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
  13. Identify the correct statements
    I. Infertility is the inability to produce viable offsprings due to the defects in the female partner
    II. Complete lactation helps in contraception
    III. Spreading awareness can help to create a reproductively healthy society
    a) II only b) I, II and III c) II and III d) I and III
  14. What is true about ‘Saheli’?

Page| 3

I. Developed at CDRI, Lucknow
II. Contains a steroidal preparation
III. ‘Once-a-week’ pill
IV. Many side effects
V. High contraceptive value
VI. Very few side effects
VII. Low contraceptive value
a) I, II, III, V and VI b) I, III, V and VI c) I, II, III, IV and V d) I, III, IV and V

  1. Which of the following match is the correct?
    I. STDs – Sexually Transmitted Diseases
    II. VD – Venerable Disease
    III. RTI – Reproductive Tract Infection
    a) I and II b) II and IV c) I and III d) I, II and III
  2. NFCP stands for
    a) National Filaria Control Programme b) National Smallpox Control Programme
    c) National Fever Control Programme d) None of the above
  3. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommanded for the females
    a) Who can’t produce an ovum
    b) Who can’t retain the foetus inside the uterus
    c) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow the passage for the sperms
    d) Who can’t provide suitable environment for fertilisation
  4. IVF involves the fertilisation …A… the body followed by …B…
    a) A-outside; B-test tube b) A-outside; B-embryo transfer
    c) A-inside; B-embryo transfer d) A-inside; B-embryo transfer
  5. Greatest biological problems faced by human beings is:
    a) Population explosion b) Depletion of ozone layer
    c) Depletion of natural resources d) Land erosion
  6. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present?
    a) Cervical caps b) Tubectomy
    c) Diaphragms d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
  7. Common STD in India is
    a) Syphilis b) Gonorrhea c) AIDS d) Herpes
  8. The prenatal technique to determine the genetic disorders in a foetus is called
    a) Laparoscopy b) Amniocentesis c) Abstinence d) Coitus interruptus
  9. Choose the correct option for 𝐴,𝐵,𝐶 and 𝐷 a) A-Tubectomy, B-Vasectomy, C-Fallopian tube cut and tied, D-Vas-deferens cut and tied
    b) A-Tubectomy, B-Vasectomy, C-Cervix, D-Vas-deferens cut and tied
    c) A-Vasectomy, B-Tubectomy, C-Vas deferens cut and tied, D-Fallopian tube cut and tied
    d) A-Tubectomy, B-Vasectomy, C-Vas deferens cut and tied, D-Fallopian tube cut and tied
  10. What is correct about a test tube baby?
    a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
    b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
    c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb
    d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract
  11. NLCP stands for

Page| 4

a) National Lyme Control Programme b) National Leprosy Control Programme
c) National Lesion Control Programme d) None of the above

  1. The main factor of population growth in India is:
    a) More of birth rate b) less of death rate c) Lack of education d) All the above
  2. Which of the following is a mechanical barrier used in birth control:
    a) Loop b) Copper-T c) Diaphragm d) Dalcon shield
  3. Copper-T prevents:
    a) Ovulation b) Fertilization of egg c) Implantation d) Both (B) and (C)
  4. Find out the correct statement
    I. Pills prevents ovulation of contraception technique
    II. Copper-T prevents implantation
    III. Vasectomy produces semen containing no sperm
    a) I and II b) II and III c) I and III d) I, II and III
  5. Ist, 2nd, 3rd dose of DPT is given by
    I. 6 weeks after birth
    II. 10 weeks after birth
    III. 14 weeks after birth
    IV. 24 weeks after birth
    V. 29 weeks after birth
    a) I, III and IV b) III, IV and V c) I, II and III d) V, I and II
  6. Which hormone of the female body is suppressed by the oral contraceptive pills?
    a) FSH b) Inhibit c) Progesterone d) Testosterone
  7. Growth curve is normally:
    a) J-shaped b) V-shaped c) S-shaped d) C-shaped
  8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation?
    a) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones
    b) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
    c) During normal menstruction about 40 ml blood is lost
    d) The menstrual fluid can easily clot
  9. Which of the following birth control measures can be considered as the safest?
    a) The rhythm method b) The use of physical barriers
    c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy d) Sterilization techniques
  10. Sterilization method used in human beings is/are called
    a) Vasectomy b) Tubectomy c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
  11. The first case of IVF-ET techniques success, was reported by:
    a) Bayliss and Starling Taylor b) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
    c) Louis Joy Brown and Banting best d) Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards
  12. Spermicidal cream used on the coating of condoms, diaphragms, cervical cap and vaults are
    a) For lubrication b) For shining
    c) For increasing effectiveness d) None of the above
  13. NMEP stands for
    a) National Measal Eradication Programme b) National Mumps Eradication Programme
    c) National Malaria Eradication Programme d) None of the above
  14. Example of the non-medicated IUD is
    a) Cu-T b) Cu-7 c) Multiload-375 d) Lippes loop
  15. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in:
    a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1980s d) 1990s
  16. Condition in which motility remains very less is
    a) Azospermia b) Polyspermia c) Oligospermia d) Asthenospermia
  17. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
    a) Are non-usable b) For female use only

Page| 5

c) For male use only d) None of these

  1. Detection technique for AIDS is
    a) PCR b) ELISA c) Both (b) and (c) d) Clinical culture
  2. In delaying pregnancy or spacing among children, the ideal contraceptive is
    a) IUD b) Natural method c) Oral contraceptive d) Pills
  3. Reproductive health is the well-being of
    a) Physical aspects b) Emotional and behavioural aspects
    c) Social aspects d) All of the above
  4. In female sterilization …A… is cut and tied. This process is called ….B… .
    Fill correct option for A and B
    a) A-cervix; B-vasectomy b) A-Fallopian tube; B-tubectomy
    c) A-cervix; B-tubectomy d) A-Fallopian tube; B-vasectomy
  5. Which of the following is most convincing reason for increase population growth in a country?
    a) High birth rate b) Low mortality rate
    c) Low population of old people d) High population of young children
  6. Difference between ZIFT and IUT lies in the
    a) Methodology b) Nature of the sperms
    c) Nature of the cells d) Number of the cells
  7. Progesterone in the contraceptive pill:
    a) Prevents ovulation b) Inhibits estrogen
    c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium d) All the above
  8. Ideal contraceptive should be
    I. User-friendly
    II. Easily available
    III. Effective
    IV. Interferring coitus
    V. Expensive and effective
    a) I, IV and III b) I, IV and V c) I, II and III d) I, IV and V
  9. IUD stands for
    a) Inter Uterine Devices b) Intra Uterine Device
    c) Inter Uterine Development d) Intra Uterine Development
  10. 𝐼𝑛 𝑣𝑖𝑣𝑜 fertilisation involves the fertilisation that takes place
    a) In the laboratory b) In the uterus c) Outside the uterus d) Either (a) or (b)
  11. A woman who substitutes or takes the place of the real mother to nurse the embryo is called
    a) Interrogate mother b) Surrogate mother
    c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
  12. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
    a) IUI-semen collected from husband or donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the
    uterus
    b) GIFT-transfer of embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube
    c) ICSI-sperm directly injected into the ovum
    d) ZIFT-transfer of embryos with upto 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube
  13. Choose the correct causes for the population growth
    I. Decline in death rate
    II. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR
    III. Rapid decline in MMR and IMR
    IV. Increase in the number of people, in the reproductive age group
    V. Rapid increase in the death rate
    a) I, II, III, IV and V b) I, II and IV c) I, III and IV d) III, IV and V
  14. The loss of forests, urbanization and increasing pollution due to:
    a) Population explosion b) Global warming c) Greenhouse effect d) Ozone depletion

Page| 6

  1. Find out the true statements for IUD
    I. They are self-inserted
    II. They are inserted by expert nurses
    III. They may be non-medicated IUDs for example, copper releasing IUDs or hormone releasing IUDs
    IV. They are inter uterine devices
    V. Widely accepted in India
    a) I, III, IV and V b) I, II, III and V c) I, II, IV and V d) I, III, IV and V
  2. Later complications of STDs are
    I. Pelvic inflammation disease
    II. Abortion
    III. Still birth
    IV. Ectopic pregnancies
    V. Infertility
    VI. Cancer
    Choose the correct combinations
    a) I, II, III, IV and V b) I, II, III, V and VI c) I, III, IV, V and VI d) I, II, III, IV, V and VI
  3. Which of the following parameter of the population can be negative?
    a) Birth rate b) Replacement level c) Growth rate d) All of these
  4. Condoms are made up of thin rubber/latex sheath which is used to cover
    a) Penis in male b) Cervix in female c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
  5. Write one or the following correctly matched Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) with its pathogen?
    a) AIDS−𝐵𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑢𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑠 b) Syphilis−𝑇𝑟𝑒𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑚𝑎 𝑝𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑑𝑢𝑚
    c) Uretheritis−𝐸𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑒𝑏𝑎 𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑠 d) Gonorrhoea−𝐿𝑒𝑖𝑠ℎ𝑚𝑎𝑛𝑖𝑎 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑜𝑣𝑎𝑛𝑖
  6. Choose the right one among the statements given below:
    a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
    b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
    c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
    d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
  7. MTP is of much risk in the phase of the pregnancy
    a) 2nd trimester b) 1st trimester c) 1st week d) 2nd week
  8. Which of the following cannot be detected in developing foetus by amniocentesis?
    a) Sex of the foetus b) Down syndrome c) Jaundice d) Klinefelter syndrome
  9. If the rate of addition of new members increases with respect to the individual host of the same
    population, then the graph obtained has:
    a) Declined growth b) Exponential growth
    c) Zero population growth d) None of these
  10. Replacement rate is estimated to be:
    a) 1.8 b) 2.0 c) 2.1 d) 3.5
  11. NCCP stands for
    a) National Cholera Control Programme b) National Chickenpox Control Programme
    c) National Chickenguhya Control Programme d) None of the above
  12. Hormone releasing IUDS among the following are
    a) Copper-T b) LNG-20 c) Saheli d) Diaphragm
  13. Given below the symptoms of a disease ‘𝑥’ Infection in urinogenital tract, yellow discharge, fever,
    headache, feeling of illness are the common symptoms. Identify (𝑥)
    a) AIDS b) Syphilis c) Gonorrhea d) Hepatitis-B
  14. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons:
    a) These are effective harriers for insemination b) They do not interfere with coital act
    c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs d) All of the above
  15. Which of the following is a technique of direct introduction of gametes into the oviduct:
    a) MTS b) ET c) IVF d) POST

Page| 7

  1. Correct surgical method of contraception is
    a) Ovariectomy b) Hysterectomy c) Vasectomy d) Castration
  2. Infant mortality rate is minimum in:
    a) Sweden b) Japan c) England d) USA
  3. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed there after:
    (1) Medical termination of pregency (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
    (2) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
    (3) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
    (4) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception
    Which two of the above statements are correct?
    a) 1,3 b) 1,2 c) 2,3 d) 3,4
  4. Vitamin-E is also called
    a) Antisterility vitamin b) Antihelmenthic hormone
    c) Inorganic antisterility vitamin d) None of the above
  5. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure:
    a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred
    to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation
    b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and
    transferred to the fallopian tube
    c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and
    transferred to the uterus
    d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred
    to the uterus
  6. First dose of BCG vaccine is given at the time of
    a) Birth b) 6 months after birth
    c) 8 months after birth d) 10 months after birth
  7. RCH stands for
    a) Reproduction and Child Healthcare b) Reproductive Cum Hygiene
    c) Routine Check-up of Health d) Reproduction of Child Health and Care
  8. Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below:
    i. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
    ii. MTPs are used as a contraception method
    iii. MTPs are always surgical
    iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
    a) ii and iii b) ii and i c) i and iv d) i and ii
  9. Oral contraceptives have hormonal preparation of
    a) Progesterone b) Oestrogen c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
  10. …A… makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to …B… . Find out the correct
    option for A and B to complete the given NCERT statement
    a) A-Hormonal releasing IUD; B-spermatogonia b) A-Hormonal releasing IUD; B-sperms
    c) A-Sperms; B-Hormonal releasing IUD d) A-Sperms; B-ova
  11. Reproductive health involves which of the following?
    a) Creating awareness b) Providing facilities and support
    c) Finding new techniques d) All of these
  12. Match the given fertilisation methods (A-H) to their respective characteristic (I-VI)
    I. Collected gametes are made to form the zygote in the laboratory
    II. Zygote or early embryo with upto 8 blastomeres is transferred into the oviduct
    III. Zygote with more than 8 blastomeres, is transferred into the uterus
    IV. Fusion of the gametes in the female reproductive tract
    V. Transfer of the ovum from a donor to the oviduct of the recipient
    VI. Sperm is injected into the ovum, 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑜
    A. GIFT B. ZIFT
    C. AI D. ICSF
    E. IUT F. IVF
    G. IUI H. 𝐼𝑛 𝑣𝑖𝑣𝑜 fertilisation

🔗 Explore More NEET MCQs (External Resource)

Want to strengthen your NEET preparation on NEET MCQs Reproductive Health
Click the link below to access more high-quality MCQs from an external source:

👉 Practice More NEET MCQs – External Resource

Credit: External content sourced for educational support. All rights belong to the original author/website.

For the official Class 10 Mathematics Solutions, you can visit:

  1. NCERT Textbooks (for Class 10):

Class-wise Solutions

Class 12:

Class 12 Physics – NCERT Solutions

Class 12 Chemistry – NCERT Solutions

Class 11:

Class 10:

Class 9:

Class 8:

Class 7:

Class 6:

Subject-wise Solutions

Physics:

Chemistry:

Biology:

Math:

Science:

NEET BIOLOGY